1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
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8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time
needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
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d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve
100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100%
branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
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a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23. which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
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a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary
values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
31. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing
this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
32. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
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33. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
34. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
35. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
36. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be
tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
37. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for
the following program fragment? ............
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
............
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
38. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
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c. Code
d. Decision table
39. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
40. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
Answers:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
31.c
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32.d
33.c
34.b
35.c
36.b
37.c
38.a
39.a
40.a
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SET 8
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ISTQB SAMPLES FOR INTERVIEW
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
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8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time
needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
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d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve
100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100%
branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
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a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23. which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
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a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary
values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
31. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing
this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
32. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
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33. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
34. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
35. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
36. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be
tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
37. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for
the following program fragment? ............
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
............
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
38. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
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c. Code
d. Decision table
39. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
40. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
Answers:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
31.c
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32.d
33.c
34.b
35.c
36.b
37.c
38.a
39.a
40.a
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
set 2 (Audi Time n Lg soft questions with answers)
----------------------------------------------------
1. Verification is:
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
2. A regression test:
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
3. If an expected result is not specified then:
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
4. Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
5. Test are prioritized so that:
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults
6. Which of the following is not a static testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
7. Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing
8. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
9. Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
7
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on
10. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the abovequh
11. The process starting with the terminal modules is called –
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration
------------
12. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above
13. Function/Test matrix is a type of
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report
14. Defect Management process does not include
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
15. What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus
testing software developed by a contractor within your country?
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control
16. Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
17. A reliable system will be one that:
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users
18. How much testing is enough
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
7
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness
20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box
21. Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above
22. To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
23. Equivalence partitioning is:
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
24. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
25. Inspections can find all the following except
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered
1)– b 2)– b 3)– c 4)– d 5)– b 6)– a 7)– d 8 )– c 9) – b 10) – d
11) –b 12) – a 13) – c 14) – b 15) – b 16) – b 17) – b 18) – b 19) – d 20) – a
21) – d 22) – b 23) – c 24) – a 25) – d
7
1) White Box Testing is not concern with _________.
a. Statement Coverage
b. Decision Coverage
c. Cause and Effect Coverage
d. Multiple Condition Coverage
ANSWER: Cause and Effect Coverage
2) Pesticide Paradox principle of testing says that ______________.
a. Clustering modules contain most of the defects.
b. Finding and Fixing defects does not help if the system built is unstable.
c. Testing is done differently in different context.
d. Test cases needs to be regularly reviewed and revised.
ANSWER: Test cases needs to be regularly reviewed and revised.
3) Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.
a. Requirement Design
b. Requirement Elicitation
c. Requirement Analysis
d. Requirement Documentation
ANSWER: Requirement Design
4) When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.
a. We cannot run the test.
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test.
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
d. We cannot automate the user inputs.
ANSWER: It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
5) A test technique that involves testing with various ranges of valid and invalid inputs of a particular module or
component functionality extensively is ___________.
7
a. Gorilla Testing
b. Monkey Testing
c. Agile Testing
d. Baseline Testing
ANSWER: Gorilla Testing
6) End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.
a. Functional and Behavioral
b. Architectural and Structural
c. Usability and Reliability
d. Algorithmic and Data Structure
ANSWER: Functional and Behavioral
7) Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.
a. Priority of that bug may low.
b. Lack of time for the release.
c. The bug may not be the major effect in the software.
d. Data may be unavailable.
ANSWER: Lack of time for the release
8) Which Testing is performed first?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Dynamic testing
d. Static testing
ANSWER: Static testing
9) Verification and Validation uses __________.
a. Internal and External resources respectively.
b. Internal resources only.
7
c. External resources only.
d. External and Internal resources respectively.
ANSWER: Internal and External resources respectively
10) Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________.
a. Load testing
b. Performance testing
c. Stress testing
d. All of these.
ANSWER: Stress testing
11) The expected results of the software is _________________.
a. Only important in system testing
b. Only used in component testing
c. Most useful when specified in advance
d. Derived from the code
ANSWER: Only important in system testing
12) Which is not true?
a. Condition coverage is also known as Predicate Coverage
b. 100% condition coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage.
c. Error guessing has rules for testing.
d. Predicate Coverage uses Boolean values.
ANSWER: Error guessing has rules for testing.
13) Test cases are created in which phase?
a. Test Specification
b. Test Planning
c. Test Requirement
d. Test Configuration ANSWER: Test Specification
7
14) Which of the following is / are not use for the Usability Improvement of the website?
a. Card sorting
b. Focus Groups
c. Heuristic Evaluation
d. None of these
ANSWER: None of these
15) A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a certain field be populated
by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that time tester is performing __________ .
a. White-box Testing
b. Black-box Testing
c. Load Testing
d. Regression Testing
ANSWER: Black-box Testing
16) 7n test cases are generated in which case of Boundary Value Analysis?
a. Worst case
b. Roust worst case
c. Critical fault assumption
d. None of these
ANSWER: Roust worst case
17) Which testing focuses on heavily testing of one particular module?
a. Gorilla Testing
b. Fuzz Testing
c. Inter-Systems Testing
d. Breadth Testing
ANSWER: Gorilla Testing
18) Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the software?
a. Regression testing
7
b. Retesting.
c. Sanity testing
d. Only A and B.
e. All of these
ANSWER: All of these
19) Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?
a. Ad-hoc testing
b. Monkey testing
c. Fuzz testing
d. End-to-End testing
ANSWER: End-to-End testing
20) Which is not true in context of Decision Tree?
a. Used in white box model.
b. Perform well with large data
c. Handles both categorical and numerical data
d. Random forest tree is used for regression type problem
ANSWER: Random forest tree is used for regression type problem
21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Ans: ‘B’
22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the
performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different
workloads.
A. Load Testing
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B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing
Ans: ‘A’
23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated
components is :-
A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing
Ans: ‘B’
24. Static analysis is best described as:
A. The analysis of batch programs.
B. The reviewing of test plans.
C. The analysis of program code.
D. The use of black box testing.
Ans: ‘C’
25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid
Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Ans: ‘C’
26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
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C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘A’
27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘B’
28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A. operating systems
B. test documentation
C. live data
D. user requirement document
Ans: ‘C’
29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘C’
30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is
more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19
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Ans: ‘C’
31. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceability Matrix
Ans: D
32. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. ReTesting
C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Ans: B
33. Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the stability of a process.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
34. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a
static process
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans: B
35. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic
process.
A. Validation
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B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans: A
36. Staff development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
37. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy
A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans: B
38. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
A. Usability Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Unit testing
D. Block Box Testing
Ans: A
39. The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement Specification’s) is called as
A. Delivery Document
B. Baseline Document
C. Checklist
Ans: B
40. What are the Testing Levels?
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A. Unit Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing and Acceptance Testing.
D. All the above
Ans: D
41. Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
42. A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as
“fishbone diagram” what is this?
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
Ans: B
43. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is
a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans: C
44. Variance from product specifications is called?
A. Report
B. Requirement
C. Defect
Ans: C
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45. Verification is
A. Process based
B. Product based
Ans: A
46. White box testing is not called as___________
A. Glass box testing
B. Closed box testing
C. OPen box testing
D. Clear box testing
Ans: B
47. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar
chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Pie Charts
Ans: A
48. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
Ans: B
49. Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as Software
Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
A. True
B. False
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Ans: A
50. The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
A. Unit Testing
B. Blackbox testing
C. White box Testing
D. Regression testing
Ans: C
51. Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures to be used.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
52.This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external
database access, interface errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White Box Testing
B. Grey Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Open Box Testing
Ans: C
53. Phase Definition. It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 2
C. None
Ans: B
54. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
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C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
Ans: A
55. Acceptance testing is known as
A. Beta Testing
B. Greybox testing
C. Test Automation
D. White box testing
Ans: A
56. Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
Ans: A
57. Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
A. Black Box testing
B. White Box testing
Ans: A
58. It measures the quality of a product It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It is a corrective process, It applies
for particular product & Deals with the product.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Ans: D
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59. What are the Types of Integration Testing?
A. Big Bang Testing
B. Bottom Up Testing
C. Top Down Testing
D. All the above
Ans: D
60. Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
61. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
Ans: B
62. Which is non-functional software testing?
A. Unit Testing
B. Block box testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Regression testing
Ans: C
63. The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as?
A. Delivery Process
B. Testing Process
C. Software Process
Ans: C
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64. Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. Retesting
C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Ans: A
65. Which is Black-Box Testing method?
A. equivalence partitioning
B. code coverage
C. fault injection
Ans: A
66. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
67. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous groups(stratA..
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
68. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.
Is the above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: B
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69. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.
Is the above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: A
70. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
Ans: B
71. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and verify that it satisfies
specified requirements or identity differences between expected and actual results.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
72. Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting.
Ans: C
73. An Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to the defects found in customer
tests, Status of test activities against the plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
A. Process Metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test Metric
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Ans: C
74. Alpha testing will be done at,
A. User's site
B. Developers' site
Ans: B
75. SPICE Means
A. Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
B. Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination.
C. Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination.
D. Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
Ans: A
76. Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,
Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
A. SDLC
B. STLC
C. SQLC
D. BLC
Ans: B
77. It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices that allow
organizations to improve their testing processes.
A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans: A
78. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called?
A. Confirmation Management
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B. Confederation Mangement
C. Configuration Management
D. Compartability Management
Ans: C
79. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
80. This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test data from the program logic;
Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least once. It is called as
A. Block box Testing
B. White box Testing
C. Grey Box Testing
D. Closed Box Testing
Ans: B
81. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system?
A. Usability Testing
B. User Acceptance Testing
C. Alpha Testing
D. Beta Testing.
Ans: A
82. Defects generally fall into the following categories?
A. WRONG
B. MISSING
C. EXTRA
D. All the above
Ans: D
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83. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
A. Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)
B. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
C. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)
Ans: B
84. Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be running on can handle projected
volumes of users and data effectively. The test is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and network
associates after the system Testing called as
A. Functional Testing
B. Stress/Load Testing
C. Recovery Testing
D. Integration Testing
Ans: B
85. Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and effort required
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
86. Beta testing will be done by
A. Developer
B. User
C. Tester
Ans: B
87. Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
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88. Integration, It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 2
D. None
Ans: B
89. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
90. Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting
development activities itself
A. Water falls model
B. Spiral Model
C. V-model
D. Linear model
Ans: C
91. A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed in developing,
implementing and maintaining the software system called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
Ans: A
92. Check Sheet(Checklist. is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because it differentiates between two
extremes.
A. True
B. False
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Ans: A
93. Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for Automation testing.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
94. Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used in a project.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
95. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
Ans: A
96. Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
97. The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected by new changes
A. Recursive testing
B. Whitebox testing
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
Ans: D
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98. Management and Measurement, It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level 2
Ans: C
99. AdHoc testing is a part of
A. Unit Testing
B. Regression Tesing
C. Exploratory Testing
D. Performance Testing
Ans: C
100. Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
101. ------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up. the application will run smoothly
A. Test Bed
B. Checkpoint
C. Code Walk through
D. Checklist
Ans: A
102. TQM represents
A. Tool Quality Management
B. Test Quality Manager
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C. Total Quality Management
D. Total Quality Manager
Ans: C
103. Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
A. CMM Level 2
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level5
Ans: D
104. Unit Testing will be done by
A. Testers
B. End Users
C. Customer
D. Developers
Ans: D
105. Beta testing will be done at
A. User place
B. Developers place
Ans: A
106. A Plan to overcome the risk called as
A. Migration Plan
B. Master plan
C. Maintenance plan
D. Mitigation Plan
Ans: D
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Q1. Impact Analysis helps to decide:
A. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
B. Exit Criteria
C. How many more test cases need to written
D. How much regression testing should be done
Q2. Determine the statement which holds true in case of Exploratory Testing:
A. It starts the execution only when the design gets finalized
B. It involves simultaneous design of the test and execution
C. It starts the execution only when the design gets renewed
D. It starts the execution only when the design gets amended
Q3.Equivalence partitioning is:
A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
Q4. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A. Number of undetected defects
B. Number of test cases not yet executed
C. Total number of defects in the product
D. Effort required to fix all defects
Q5. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions
Q6. A test harness is a:
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization
regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
Q7. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
A. finding faults in the system
B. ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
C. testing the system with other systems
D. testing for a business perspective
E. testing by an independent test team
7
Q8. Unreachable code would best be found using:
A. code reviews
B. code inspections
C. a coverage tool
D. a static analysis tool
Q9. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan?
A. to know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. to know when test planning is complete
E. to plan when to stop testing
Q10. Before launching a software which testing is to be done in-house?
A. Beta
B. Gamma
C. Alpha
D. None of the above
Q11. In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q12.The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
A. re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
B. re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
E. re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
Q13. Statement Coverage will not check for the following:
A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement
Q14. Beta testing is:
A. Performed by customers at their own site
B. Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Useful to test bespoke software
E. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q15. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique?
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. Linear code sequence and jump
D. Syntax testing
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E. Boundary value analysis
Q16. Which testing phase tests individual software modules combined together as a group?
A. Module testing
B. Integration testing
C. White Box testing
D. Software testing
Q17. Which is NOT true - The black box tester:
A. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
B. should be able to understand the source code
C. is highly motivated to find faults
D. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
Q18. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A. Determining the test approach
B. Preparing test specifications
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D. Measuring and analyzing results
Q19. Which of the following is NOT a static testing technique?
A. Error guessing
B. Walkthrough
C. Data flow analysis
D. Inspections
Audi time pattern
2) Pesticide Paradox principle of testing says that ______________.
a. Clustering modules contain most of the defects.
b. Finding and Fixing defects does not help if the system built is unstable.
c. Testing is done differently in different context.
d. Test cases needs to be regularly reviewed and revised.
ANSWER: Test cases needs to be regularly reviewed and revised.
7
When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.
a. We cannot run the test.
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test.
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
d. We cannot automate the user inputs.
ANSWER: It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.
a. Functional and Behavioral
b. Architectural and Structural
c. Usability and Reliability
d. Algorithmic and Data Structure
ANSWER: Functional and Behavioral
Which Testing is performed first?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Dynamic testing
d. Static testing
ANSWER: Static testing
Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________.
a. Load testing
b. Performance testing
c. Stress testing
d. All of these.
ANSWER: Stress testing
11) The expected results of the software is _________________.
a. Only important in system testing
7
b. Only used in component testing
c. Most useful when specified in advance
d. Derived from the code
ANSWER: Only important in system testing
12) Which is not true?
a. Condition coverage is also known as Predicate Coverage
b. 100% condition coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage.
c. Error guessing has rules for testing.
d. Predicate Coverage uses Boolean values.
ANSWER: Error guessing has rules for testing.
16) 7n test cases are generated in which case of Boundary Value Analysis?
a. Worst case
b. Roust worst case
c. Critical fault assumption
d. None of these
ANSWER: Roust worst case
Which of the following is not a static testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspection
10. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the abovequh
White Box Testing is not concern with _________.
a. Statement Coverage
b. Decision Coverage
c. Cause and Effect Coverage
d. Multiple Condition Coverage
7
ANSWER: Cause and Effect Coverage
The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceability Matrix
Ans D
------------------------------------------
SET 3
--------------------------------------------
Q1. What is Software Quality?
a. if developers don't know what's needed or customer's have erroneous
expectations, problems are guaranteed
b. if requirements are unclear, incomplete, too general, or not testable,
there will be problems
c. Quality software is reasonably bug-free, delivered on time and within
budget
d. All of the above
Q2. Why does software have bugs?
- Software Complexity
- programming errors
- time pressures
- All of the above
Q3. The approach/document used to make sure all
the requirements are covered when writing test cases
- Test Matrix
- Checklist
- Test bed
- Traceability Matrix
Q4. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the above
Q5. The most important thing about early test
design is that it:
- Makes test preparation easier.
- Means inspections are not required.
- Can prevent fault multiplication.
- Will find all faults.
Q6. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
Q7. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b. It only models the testing phase.
c. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d. It includes the verification of designs.
Q8. In prioritizing what to test, the most
important objective is to:
a. Find as many faults as possible.
b. Test high risk areas.
c. Obtain good test coverage.
d.
Test whatever is easiest to test.
Q9. Which one of the following statements about
system testing is NOT true?
a. System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b. Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d. End-users should be involved in system tests.
Q10. What are the test cases prepared by the
testing team?
a. Unit test cases
b. Integration test cases
c. System test cases
d. All of the above
Q11. What is the methodology used for test case
writing?
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Equivalence class partitioning
c. Error Guessing
d. All of the above
Q12. Which is the key element of a test case?
a. Test case number
b. Test case description
c. Expected result
d. Test Status
Q13. In prioritizing what to test, the most important
objective is to:
a. Find as many faults as possible.
b. Test high risk areas.
c. Obtain good test coverage.
d. Test whatever is easiest to test.
Q14. What is the main purpose of impact analysis
for testers?
a. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
b. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
c. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
d. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
Q15. During the software development process, at
what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
Q16. What is Alpha testing?
a. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s
site.
b. The first testing that is performed.
c. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s
site.
d. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
Q17. What is BETA testing?
a. To verify in End User site
b. To verify before releasing the product
c. To verify the coding
d. None of these
Q18. What is Cosmetic Flaw testing?
a. To verify the data integrity
b. To verify the spellings and colors,
c. To verify the units
d. To verify the code
Q19. Executing the same test case on a modified
build called as
a. Regression Testing
b. Retesting
c. Ad hoc Testing
d. Sanity Testing
Q20. Informing to the developer which bug to fix
first is called as
a. Severity
b. Priority
c. Fix ability
d. Traceability
Q21. Expected results are?
a. only important in system testing
b. only used in component testing
c. never specified in advance
d. most useful when specified in advance
e. derived from the code
Q22. The cost of fixing a fault:
a. Is not important
b. Increases as we move the product towards live use
c. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e. Can never be determined
Q23. When what is visible to end-users is a
deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a. an error
b. a fault
c. a failure
d. a defect
e. a mistake
Q24. What is Database testing?
a. Data validity testing
b. Data Integritity testing
c. Testing of Procedure,triggers and functions
d. All of the above
Q25. Which of the below best defines Scenario-based
testing
a. concentrates on actor and software interaction
b. misses errors in specifications
c. misses errors in subsystem interactions
d. both a and b
Q26. A database access applications typically
consists of following elements except
a. User Interface code
b. Business login code
c. Data-access service code
d. Data Driven code
Q27. Executing the same test case by giving the
number of inputs on same build is called as
a. Regression Testing
b. ReTesting
c. Ad hoc Testing
d. Sanity Testing
Q28. A Non-Functional Software testing done to
check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
a. Usability Testing
b. Security Testing
c. Unit testing
d. Block Box Testing
Q29. The name of the testing which is done to make
sure the existing features are not affected by new changes
a. Recursive testing
b. Whitebox testing
c. Unit testing
d. Regression testing
Q30. Gray Box Testing mean by
a. A combination of Black Box and White Box testing methodologies
b. A combination of Integration and Black Box testing methodologies
c. A combination of integration and Acceptance and Functional
methodologies
d. A combination of integration and Unit testing and White Box
methodologies
Q31) Deliverables of test design phase include all
the following except (Testing artifacts)
a. Test data
b. Test data plan report
c. Test summary report
d. Test procedure plan
Q32. Given the following specification, which of
the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be
insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone
over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
a. 17, 18, 19.
b. 29, 30, 31.
c. 18, 29, 30.
d. 17, 29, 31.
Q33. Which of the following is not a static
testing technique?
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
Q34. “Validate that the functions meet stated
requirements” is
a. Integration testing
b. Acceptance testing
c. Unit testing
d. Independent testing
Q35. Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) When the project manager says
a. v & w are true, x – z are false
b. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d. w is true, v, x y and z are false
e. All of the above are true
Q36. What information should not be included in a
test incident report?
a. How to fix the fault
b. How to reproduce the fault
c. Test environment details
d. Severity, priority
e. The actual and expected outcomes
Q37. What are the key features to be concentrated
upon when doing a testing for world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a. Interaction between html pages
b. Performance on the client side
c. Security aspects
d. All of the above
Q38. Order numbers on a stock control system can
range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be
a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
boundaries?
a. 1000, 5000, 99999
b. 9999, 50000, 100000
c. 10000, 50000, 99999
d. 10000, 99999
e. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
Q39. Consider the following statements about early
test design:
i)early test design can prevent fault
multiplication
ii)faults found during early test design are more
expensive to fix
iii)early test design can find faults
iv)early test design can cause changes to the
requirements
v)early test design takes more effort
a. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii is false
e. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SET 4
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q1.
What is Software Quality?
a. if developers don't know what's needed or customer's have erroneous
expectations, problems are guaranteed
b. if requirements are unclear, incomplete, too general, or not testable,
there will be problems
c.
Quality software is reasonably bug-free, delivered on time and within
budget
d. All of the above
Q2. Why does software have bugs?
- Software Complexity
- programming errors
- time pressures
- All of the above
Q3. The approach/document used to make sure all
the requirements are covered when writing test cases
- Test Matrix
- Checklist
- Test bed
- Traceability Matrix
Q4. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d.
All of the above
Q5. The most important thing about early test
design is that it:
- Makes test preparation easier.
- Means inspections are not required.
- Can prevent fault multiplication.
- Will find all faults.
Q6. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c.
Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
Q7. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b. It only models the testing phase.
c. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d.
It includes the verification of designs.
Q8. In prioritizing what to test, the most
important objective is to:
a. Find as many faults as possible.
b.
Test high risk areas.
c. Obtain good test coverage.
d.
Test whatever is easiest to test.
Q9. Which one of the following statements about
system testing is NOT true?
a. System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b. Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d.
End-users should be involved in system tests.
Q10. What are the test cases prepared by the
testing team?
a. Unit test cases
b. Integration test cases
c. System test cases
d.
All of the above
Q11. What is the methodology used for test case
writing?
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Equivalence class partitioning
c. Error Guessing
d.
All of the above
Q12. Which is the key element of a test case?
a. Test case number
b. Test case description
c.
Expected result
d. Test Status
Q13. In prioritizing what to test, the most important
objective is to:
a. Find as many faults as possible.
b.
Test high risk areas.
c. Obtain good test coverage.
d. Test whatever is easiest to test.
Q14. What is the main purpose of impact analysis
for testers?
a. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
b. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
c. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
d.
To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
Q15. During the software development process, at
what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c.
When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
Q16. What is Alpha testing?
a. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s
site.
b. The first testing that is performed.
c.
Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s
site.
d. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
Q17. What is BETA testing?
a.
To verify in End User site
b. To verify before releasing the product
c. To verify the coding
d. None of these
Q18. What is Cosmetic Flaw testing?
a. To verify the data integrity
b.
To verify the spellings and colors,
c. To verify the units
d. To verify the code
Q19. Executing the same test case on a modified
build called as
a.
Regression Testing
b. Retesting
c. Ad hoc Testing
d. Sanity Testing
Q20. Informing to the developer which bug to fix
first is called as
a. Severity
b.
Priority
c. Fix ability
d. Traceability
Q21. Expected results are?
a. only important in system testing
b. only used in component testing
c. never specified in advance
d.
most useful when specified in advance
e. derived from the code
Q22. The cost of fixing a fault:
a. Is not important
b.
Increases as we move the product towards live use
c. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e. Can never be determined
Q23. When what is visible to end-users is a
deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a. an error
b. a fault
c.
a failure
d. a defect
e. a mistake
Q24. What is Database testing?
a. Data validity testing
b. Data Integritity testing
c. Testing of Procedure,triggers and functions
d.
All of the above
Q25. Which of the below best defines Scenario-based
testing
a.
concentrates on actor and software interaction
b. misses errors in specifications
c. misses errors in subsystem interactions
d. both a and b
Q26. A database access applications typically
consists of following elements except
a. User Interface code
b. Business login code
c. Data-access service code
d.
Data Driven code
Q27. Executing the same test case by giving the
number of inputs on same build is called as
a. Regression Testing
b.
ReTesting
c. Ad hoc Testing
d. Sanity Testing
Q28. A Non-Functional Software testing done to
check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
a.
Usability Testing
b. Security Testing
c. Unit testing
d. Block Box Testing
Q29. The name of the testing which is done to make
sure the existing features are not affected by new changes
a. Recursive testing
b. Whitebox testing
c. Unit testing
d.
Regression testing
Q30. Gray Box Testing mean by
a.
A combination of Black Box and White Box testing methodologies
b. A combination of Integration and Black Box testing methodologies
c. A combination of integration and Acceptance and Functional
methodologies
d. A combination of integration and Unit testing and White Box
methodologies
Q31) Deliverables of test design phase include all
the following except (Testing artifacts)
a.
Test data
b. Test data plan report
c. Test summary report
d. Test procedure plan
Q32. Given the following specification, which of
the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be
insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone
over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
a. 17, 18, 19.
b. 29, 30, 31.
c. 18, 29, 30.
d.
17, 29, 31.
Q33. Which of the following is not a static
testing technique?
a.
Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
Q34. “Validate that the functions meet stated
requirements” is
a. Integration testing
b. Acceptance testing
c.
Unit testing
d. Independent testing
Q35. Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) When the project manager says
a. v & w are true, x – z are false
b. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c.
w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d. w is true, v, x y and z are false
e. All of the above are true
Q36. What information should not be included in a
test incident report?
a.
How to fix the fault
b. How to reproduce the fault
c. Test environment details
d. Severity, priority
e. The actual and expected outcomes
Q37. What are the key features to be concentrated
upon when doing a testing for world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a. Interaction between html pages
b. Performance on the client side
c. Security aspects
d.
All of the above
Q38. Order numbers on a stock control system can
range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be
a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
boundaries?
a. 1000, 5000, 99999
b. 9999, 50000, 100000
c.
10000, 50000, 99999
d. 10000, 99999
e. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
Q39. Consider the following statements about early
test design:
i)early test design can prevent fault
multiplication
ii)faults found during early test design are more
expensive to fix
iii)early test design can find faults
iv)early test design can cause changes to the
requirements
v)early test design takes more effort
a.
i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii is false
e. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
----------------------------------------------------
SET 5
--------------------------------------------------
1. The cost of fixing a
fault:
a)
It is not important
b)
Increases as we move
the product towards live use
c)
Decreases as we move
the product towards live use
d)
Is more expensive if
found in requirements than in functional design
e)
Can never be
determined
2. Testing
should be stopped when
a) All
the tests planned have been executed
b) Time
has run out
c) All
faults have been fixed correctly
d) Both
a) and c)
e) It
depends on the risk of the system being tested
3. Error
Guessing is best used
a) As
the first approach to deriving Test Cases
b) After
more formal techniques have been applied
c) By
inexperienced testers
d) After
the system has gone live
e) Only
by end users
4. Non-functional
System testing includes
a) Testing
to see where the system does not function properly
b) Testing
quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) Testing
the software system using only the required action
d) Testing
the software system using only the required function
e) Testing
for functions that should not exist
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between
10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of
designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries.
a) 1000,5000,99999
b) 9999,50000,100000
c) 10000,50000,99999
d) 10000,99999
e) 9999,10000,50000,99999,100000
6. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No,
because they apply to development documentation
b) No,
because they are normally applied before testing
c) No,
because they do not apply to the test case documentation
d) Yes,
because both help detect faults and improve the quality
e) Yes,
because testing includes non-constructive activities
7. What
statements about expected outcomes is false
a) Expected
outcomes are derived from software’s behaviour
b) Expected
outcomes are derived from the specifications
c) Expected
outcomes should be predicted before the Test Run
d) Expected
outcomes may include timing constraints such as Response time
e) Expected
outcomes include output to the screen and changes for files and database
8. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the
specific or expected behaviour, this is called:
a) An error
b) A fault
c) A failure
d) A defect
e) A mistake
9. Regression testing should be performed
v) Every week w) after the software has changed
x) As often as possible y) when the environment has changed
z) When the project manager
says
a) v
& w are true, x-y-z are false
b) w
, x & y are true, v and z are false
c) w
& y are true, v-x-z are false
d) w
is true, v-x-y-z are false
e) all
of the above are true
10. The
difference between Retesting and Regression Testing is
a) Retesting
is running a test again, Regression Testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) Retesting
looks for unexpected side effects, Regression Testing is repeating a test again
c) Retesting
is done after faults are fixed, Regression Testing is done earlier
d) Retesting
uses different environments, Regression Testing uses same environment
e) Retesting
is done by developers, Regression testing is done by testers
11. Software applications are tested in order to
find only bugs.
1. True 2. False
12. Bug in the software application is always
due to wrong code written by the
Developer.
1. True 2. False
13. One error in the software application leads
to failure of the entire system.
1. True 2.
False
14. Testing the software manually is
1. Time consuming
2. Less accurate
3. Requires more testers
4. All the above
15. We go for automation when the project is
1. Long term 2. Short term
16. We can test a software application using
automation tool and avoid
Manual testing completely?
1. True
2. False
17. As a
tester when you find bugs in a software
1.
You will fix it. 2. You will
report it to developer
18. When the bug is found in the production
environment the cost of fixing is high
1.
True
2. False
19. There is no difference between bug and a
defect.
1.
True
2. False
20. A tester doesn’t require programming
knowledge to test a software application.
1.
True
2. False
21Which one of the following are non-functional
testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
22 Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence
partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions
on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input
circumstances
d. Is used in white box
testing strategy
23. During the software development process, at
what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is
complete.
c. When the software
requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module
is ready for unit testing
24. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
25. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
---------------------------------------------------
SET 6
--------------------------------------------------
1. The cost of fixing a
fault:
a)
It is not important
b)
Increases as we move the product towards live use
c)
Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d)
Is more expensive if found in requirements than in
functional design
e)
Can never be determined
2. Testing
should be stopped when
a) All
the tests planned have been executed
b) Time
has run out
c) All
faults have been fixed correctly
d) Both
a) and c)
e) It
depends on the risk of the system being tested
3. Error
Guessing is best used
a) As
the first approach to deriving Test Cases
b) After
more formal techniques have been applied
c) By
inexperienced testers
d) After
the system has gone live
e) Only
by end users
4. Non-functional
System testing includes
a) Testing
to see where the system does not function properly
b) Testing
quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) Testing
the software system using only the required action
d) Testing
the software system using only the required function
e) Testing
for functions that should not exist
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can
range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be a
result of designing tests for
only valid
equivalence classes and valid
boundaries.
a) 1000,5000,99999
b) 9999,50000,100000
c) 10000,50000,99999
d) 10000,99999,1000
e) 9999,10000,50000,99999,100000
6. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No,
because they apply to development documentation
b) No,
because they are normally applied before testing
c) No,
because they do not apply to the test case documentation
d) Yes,
because both help detect faults and improve the quality
e) Yes,
because testing includes non-constructive activities
7. What
statements about expected outcomes is false
a) Expected
outcomes are derived from software’s behaviour
b) Expected
outcomes are derived from the specifications
c) Expected
outcomes should be predicted before the Test Run
d) Expected
outcomes may include timing
constraints such as Response time
e) Expected
outcomes include output to the screen and changes
for files and database
8. When what is visible to end-users is a
deviation from the specific or
expected behaviour, this is called:
a) An error
b) A fault
c) A failure
d) A defect
e) A mistake
9. Regression testing should be performed
v) Every week
w) After the software has
changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the envir onment has
changed
z) When the project manager
says
a) v
& w are true, x-y-z are false
b) w
, x & y are true, v and z are false
c) w
& y are true, v-x-z are false
d) w
is true, v-x-y-z are false
e) all
of the above are true
10. The
difference between Retesting and Regression Testing is
a) Retesting
is running a test again, Regression
Testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) Retesting
looks for unexpected side effects,
Regression Testing is repeating
a test again
c) Retesting
is done after faults are fixed,
d) Retesting
uses different environments, Regression
Testing uses same environment
e) Retesting
is done by developers, Regression testing is done by testers
11. Software applications are tested in order to
find only bugs.
1. True 2. False
12. Bug in the software application is always
due to wrong code written by the
Developer.
1. True 2. False
13. One error in the software application leads
to failure of the entire system.
1. True 2.
False
14. Testing the software manually is
1. Time consuming
2. Less accurate
3. Requires more testers
4. All the above
15. We go for automation when the project is
1. Long term 2. Short term
16. We can test a software application using
automation tool and avoid
Manual testing completely?
1. True 2.
False
17. As a
tester when you find bugs in a software
1.
You will fix it. 2. You will
report it to developer
18. When the bug is found in the production
environment the cost of fixing
is high
1.
True
2. False
19. There is no difference between bug and a
defect.
1.
True
2. False
20. A tester doesn’t require programming
knowledge to test a software application.
1.
True
2. False
21 Which
one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
22 Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence
partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions
on, below and above the edges of
input and output equivalence
classes
c. Tests combinations of input
circumstances
d. Is used in white box
testing strategy
23. During the software development process, at
what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is
complete.
c. When the software
requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module
is ready for unit testing
24. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
25. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
----------------------------------------------------------
SET7
--------------------------------------------------------
1. The
cost of fixing a fault:
a)
It is not important
b) Increases as we move
the product towards live use
c)
Decreases as we move
the product towards live use
d)
Is more expensive if
found in requirements than in functional design
e)
Can never be
determined
2. Testing
should be stopped when
a) All
the tests planned have been executed
b) Time
has run out
c) All
faults have been fixed correctly
d) Both
a) and c)
e)
It
depends on the risk of the system being tested
3. Error
Guessing is best used
a) As
the first approach to deriving Test Cases
b)
After
more formal techniques have been applied
c) By
inexperienced testers
d) After
the system has gone live
e) Only
by end users
4. Non-functional
System testing includes
a) Testing
to see where the system does not function properly
b)
Testing
quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) Testing
the software system using only the required action
d) Testing
the software system using only the required function
e) Testing
for functions that should not exist
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between
10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of
designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries.
a) 1000,5000,99999
b) 9999,50000,100000
c)
10000,50000,99999
d) 10000,99999
e) 9999,10000,50000,99999,100000
6. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No,
because they apply to development documentation
b) No,
because they are normally applied before testing
c) No,
because they do not apply to the test case documentation
d)
Yes,
because both help detect faults and improve the quality
e) Yes,
because testing includes non-constructive activities
7. What
statements about expected outcomes is false
a)
Expected
outcomes are derived from software’s behaviour
b) Expected
outcomes are derived from the specifications
c) Expected
outcomes should be predicted before the Test Run
d) Expected
outcomes may include timing constraints such as Response time
e) Expected
outcomes include output to the screen and changes for files and database
8. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the
specific or expected behaviour, this is called:
a) An error
b) A fault
c)
A failure
d) A defect
e) A mistake
9. Regression testing should be performed
v) Every week w) after
the software has changed
x) As often as possible y) when
the environment has changed
z) When the project manager
says
a) v
& w are true, x-y-z are false
b) w
, x & y are true, v and z are false
c) w
& y are true, v-x-z are false
d) w
is true, v-x-y-z are false
e) all
of the above are true
10. The
difference between Retesting and Regression Testing is
a)
Retesting
is running a test again, Regression Testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) Retesting
looks for unexpected side effects, Regression Testing is repeating a test again
c) Retesting
is done after faults are fixed, Regression Testing is done earlier
d) Retesting
uses different environments, Regression Testing uses same environment
e) Retesting
is done by developers, Regression testing is done by testers
11. Software applications are tested in order to
find only bugs.
1. True 2. False
12. Bug in the software application is always
due to wrong code written by the
Developer.
1. True 2. False
13. One error in the software application leads
to failure of the entire system.
1. True 2.
False
14. Testing the software manually is
1. Time consuming
2. Less accurate
3. Requires more testers
4. All the above
15. We go for automation when the project is
1. Long term 2. Short term
16. We can test a software application using
automation tool and avoid
Manual testing completely?
1. True 2. False
17. As a
tester when you find bugs in a software
1.
You will fix it. 2. You will report it to developer
18. When the bug is found in the production environment
the cost of fixing is high
1.
True 2.
False
19. There is no difference between bug and a
defect.
1.
True
2. False
20. A tester doesn’t require programming
knowledge to test a software application.
1.
True
2. False
21Which one of the following are non-functional
testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
22 Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence
partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and
output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input
circumstances
d. Is used in white box
testing strategy
23. During the software development process, at
what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is
complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module
is ready for unit testing
24. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
25. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
SET 8
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Verification is:
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
2. A regression test:
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
3. If an expected result is not
specified then:
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
4. Which of the following could be a
reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
5. Test are prioritized so that:
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults
6. Which of the following is not a
static testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
7. Which of the following statements
about component testing is not true?
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing
8. During which test activity could
faults be found most cost effectively?
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
9. Which, in general, is the least
required skill of a good tester?
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on
10. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the abovequh
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the abovequh
11. The process starting with the
terminal modules is called –
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration
------------
12. The inputs for developing a test
plan are taken from
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above
13. Function/Test matrix is a type of
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report
14. Defect Management process does not include
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
15. What is the difference between
testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing
software developed by a contractor within your country?
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control
16. Software testing accounts to what
percent of software development costs?
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
17. A reliable system will be one that:
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users
18. How much testing is enough
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
19. Which of the following is not a
characteristic for Testability?
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness
20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes
under which testing method.
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box
21. Which of these can be successfully
tested using Loop Testing methodology?
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above
22. To test a function, the programmer
has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
23. Equivalence partitioning is:
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
24. When a new testing tool is
purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
25. Inspections can find all the
following except
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered
1)– b 2)– b 3)– c 4)– d 5)– b 6)– a 7)– d 8 )– c 9) – b 10) – d
11) –b 12) – a 13) – c 14) – b 15) – b 16) – b 17) – b 18) – b 19) – d 20) – a
21) – d 22) – b 23) – c 24) – a 25) – d
11) –b 12) – a 13) – c 14) – b 15) – b 16) – b 17) – b 18) – b 19) – d 20) – a
21) – d 22) – b 23) – c 24) – a 25) – d
1) White Box Testing is not concern with
_________.
a.
Statement Coverage
b.
Decision Coverage
c. Cause
and Effect Coverage
d.
Multiple Condition Coverage
ANSWER:
Cause and Effect Coverage
2) Pesticide Paradox principle of testing says
that ______________.
a.
Clustering modules contain most of the defects.
b.
Finding and Fixing defects does not help if the system built is unstable.
c.
Testing is done differently in different context.
d. Test
cases needs to be regularly reviewed and
revised.
ANSWER:
Test cases needs to be regularly
reviewed and revised.
3) Requirement Engineering is not concern with
____________.
a.
Requirement Design
b.
Requirement Elicitation
c.
Requirement Analysis
d.
Requirement Documentation
ANSWER:
Requirement Design
4) When an expected result is not specified in
test case template then ___________.
a. We
cannot run the test.
b. It may
be difficult to repeat the test.
c. It may
be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
d. We
cannot automate the user inputs.
ANSWER:
It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
5) A test technique that involves testing with
various ranges of valid and invalid inputs of a particular module or component
functionality extensively is ___________.
a.
Gorilla Testing
b. Monkey
Testing
c. Agile
Testing
d.
Baseline Testing
ANSWER:
Gorilla Testing
6) End result of Software Requirement Analysis
is ________.
a. Functional
and Behavioral
b.
Architectural and Structural
c.
Usability and Reliability
d.
Algorithmic and Data Structure
ANSWER:
Functional and Behavioral
7) Bug status is set to postpone due to
________.
a.
Priority of that bug may low.
b. Lack
of time for the release.
c. The
bug may not be the major effect in the software.
d. Data
may be unavailable.
ANSWER: Lack
of time for the release
8) Which Testing is performed first?
a. Black
box testing
b. White
box testing
c.
Dynamic testing
d. Static
testing
ANSWER:
Static testing
9) Verification and Validation uses __________.
a.
Internal and External resources respectively.
b.
Internal resources only.
c.
External resources only.
d.
External and Internal resources respectively.
ANSWER:
Internal and External resources respectively
10) Testing beyond normal operational capacity
is __________.
a. Load
testing
b.
Performance testing
c. Stress
testing
d. All of
these.
ANSWER:
Stress testing
11) The expected results of the software is
_________________.
a. Only
important in system testing
b. Only
used in component testing
c. Most
useful when specified in advance
d.
Derived from the code
ANSWER:
Only important in system testing
12) Which is not true?
a.
Condition coverage is also known as Predicate Coverage
b. 100%
condition coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage.
c. Error
guessing has rules for testing.
d.
Predicate Coverage uses Boolean values.
ANSWER:
Error guessing has rules for testing.
13) Test cases are created in which phase?
a. Test
Specification
b. Test
Planning
c. Test
Requirement
d. Test
Configuration ANSWER: Test
Specification
14) Which of the following is / are not use for
the Usability Improvement of the website?
a. Card
sorting
b. Focus
Groups
c.
Heuristic Evaluation
d. None
of these
ANSWER:
None of these
15) A tester is executing a test to evaluate and
it complies with the user requirement for a certain field be populated by using
a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that time tester is performing
__________ .
a.
White-box Testing
b.
Black-box Testing
c. Load
Testing
d.
Regression Testing
ANSWER:
Black-box Testing
16) 7n test cases are generated in which case of
Boundary Value Analysis?
a. Worst
case
b. Roust
worst case
c.
Critical fault assumption
d. None
of these
ANSWER:
Roust worst case
17) Which testing focuses on heavily testing of
one particular module?
a.
Gorilla Testing
b. Fuzz
Testing
c.
Inter-Systems Testing
d.
Breadth Testing
ANSWER:
Gorilla Testing
18) Which testing cannot be performed on first
build of the software?
a.
Regression testing
b.
Retesting.
c. Sanity
testing
d. Only A
and B.
e. All of
these
ANSWER:
All of these
19) Which testing is performed with Planning and
Documentation?
a. Ad-hoc
testing
b. Monkey
testing
c. Fuzz testing
d.
End-to-End testing
ANSWER:
End-to-End testing
20) Which is not true in context of Decision
Tree?
a. Used
in white box model.
b.
Perform well with large data
c.
Handles both categorical and numerical data
d. Random
forest tree is used for regression type problem
ANSWER:
Random forest tree is used for regression type problem
21. Which
of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A.
Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B.
Logging the outcome of test execution.
C.
Assessing if more tests are needed.
D.
Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Ans: ‘B’
22.
Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of
the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
A. Load
Testing
B.
Integration Testing
C. System
Testing
D.
Usability Testing
Ans: ‘A’
23.
Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in
the interaction between integrated components is :-
A. System
Level Testing
B.
Integration Level Testing
C. Unit
Level Testing
D.
Component Testing
Ans: ‘B’
24.
Static analysis is best described as:
A. The
analysis of batch programs.
B. The reviewing
of test plans.
C. The
analysis of program code.
D. The
use of black box testing.
Ans: ‘C’
25. One
of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values.
Identify the Valid Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Ans: ‘C’
26.
Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test
Analysis and Design
B. Test
Implementation and execution
C. Test
Closure Activities
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘A’
27.
Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
A. Test
Analysis and Design
B. Test
Implementation and execution
C. Test
Closure Activities
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘B’
28. Which
of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A.
operating systems
B. test
documentation
C. live
data
D. user
requirement document
Ans: ‘C’
29.
Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
A. Test
Analysis and Design
B. Test
Planning and control
C. Test
Closure Activities
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘C’
30. The
Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values
which belong to the same class.
A.
12,16,22
B.
24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D.
14,15,19
Ans: ‘C’
31. The
approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when
writing test cases
A. Test
Matrix
B.
Checklist
C. Test
bed
D.
Traceability Matrix
Ans: D
32.
Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build
called as
A.
Regression Testing
B.
ReTesting
C. Ad hoc
Testing
D. Sanity
Testing
Ans: B
33.
Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the
stability of a process.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
34. To check
whether we are developing the right product according to the customer
requirements are not. It is a static process
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: B
35. To
check whether we have developed the product according to the customer
requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: A
36. Staff
development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team
members will be developed.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
37. It is
a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy
A. TIM
(Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM
(Testing Maturity Model)
C.
TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans: B
38. A
Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to
use and understand
A.
Usability Testing
B.
Security Testing
C. Unit
testing
D. Block
Box Testing
Ans: A
39. The
review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement
Specification’s) is called as
A. Delivery
Document
B.
Baseline Document
C.
Checklist
Ans: B
40. What
are the Testing Levels?
A. Unit
Testing
B.
Integration Testing
C. System
Testing and Acceptance Testing.
D. All
the above
Ans: D
41. Cost
of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
42. A
useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause
of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
A. Pareto
Analysis
B.
Cause-and-Effect Diagram
Ans: B
43. It
measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a
system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for
entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: C
44.
Variance from product specifications is called?
A. Report
B.
Requirement
C. Defect
Ans: C
45.
Verification is
A.
Process based
B.
Product based
Ans: A
46. White
box testing is not called as___________
A. Glass
box testing
B. Closed
box testing
C. OPen
box testing
D. Clear
box testing
Ans: B
47. Name
the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by
frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is
called as
A. Pareto
Analysis
B. Cause
and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT
Analysis
D. Pie
Charts
Ans: A
48.
Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full
Regression Testing
B. Unit
Regression
C.
Regional Regression
D.
Retesting
Ans: B
49.
Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and
Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
50. The
testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
A. Unit
Testing
B.
Blackbox testing
C. White
box Testing
D.
Regression testing
Ans: C
51.
Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures
and structures to be used.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
52.This
type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors
in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance
errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White
Box Testing
B. Grey
Box Testing
C. Black
Box Testing
D. Open
Box Testing
Ans: C
53. Phase
Definition. It will come under
A. CMM
Level 1
B. CMM
Level 2
C. None
Ans: B
54.
Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc
Testing
B. Unit
Testing
C.
Regression testing
D.
Functional testing.
Ans: A
55. Acceptance
testing is known as
A. Beta
Testing
B.
Greybox testing
C. Test
Automation
D. White
box testing
Ans: A
56.
Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?
A. Full
Regression Testing
B. Unit
Regression
C.
Regional Regression
D.
Retesting
Ans: A
57.
Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
A. Black
Box testing
B. White
Box testing
Ans: A
58. It
measures the quality of a product It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It
is a corrective process, It applies for particular product & Deals with the
product.
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: D
59. What
are the Types of Integration Testing?
A. Big
Bang Testing
B. Bottom
Up Testing
C. Top
Down Testing
D. All
the above
Ans: D
60.
Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
61. A
metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A.
Process metric
B.
Product Metric
C. Test
metrics
Ans: B
62. Which
is non-functional software testing?
A. Unit
Testing
B. Block
box testing
C.
Performance Testing
D.
Regression testing
Ans: C
63. The
process that deals with the technical and management issues of software
development called as?
A.
Delivery Process
B.
Testing Process
C.
Software Process
Ans: C
64.
Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
A.
Regression Testing
B.
Retesting
C. Ad hoc
Testing
D. Sanity
Testing
Ans: A
65. Which
is Black-Box Testing method?
A.
equivalence partitioning
B. code
coverage
C. fault
injection
Ans: A
66.
Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
67.
Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into
homogeneous groups(stratA..
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
68.
Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.
Is the
above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: B
69.
Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.
Is the
above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: A
70.
Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
A.
Severity
B.
Priority
C. Fix
ability
D.
Traceability
Ans: B
71.
Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic
means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity
differences between expected and actual results.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
72.
Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been
made?
A. Full
Regression Testing
B. Unit
Regression
C.
Regional Regression
D.
Retesting.
Ans: C
73. An
Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to
the defects found in customer tests, Status of test activities against the
plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
A.
Process Metric
B.
Product Metric
C. Test
Metric
Ans: C
74. Alpha
testing will be done at,
A. User's
site
B.
Developers' site
Ans: B
75. SPICE
Means
A.
Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
B.
Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination.
C.
Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination.
D.
Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
Ans: A
76.
Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,
Bug
Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
A. SDLC
B. STLC
C. SQLC
D. BLC
Ans: B
77. It
provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of
recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing
processes.
A. TIM (Testing
Improving Model)
B. TMM
(Testing Maturity Model)
C.
TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans: A
78.
Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product
is called?
A.
Confirmation Management
B.
Confederation Mangement
C. Configuration
Management
D.
Compartability Management
Ans: C
79. Path
Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
80. This
Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test
data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions
executed at least once. It is called as
A. Block
box Testing
B. White
box Testing
C. Grey
Box Testing
D. Closed
Box Testing
Ans: B
81. This
type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact
with the system?
A.
Usability Testing
B. User
Acceptance Testing
C. Alpha
Testing
D. Beta
Testing.
Ans: A
82.
Defects generally fall into the following categories?
A. WRONG
B.
MISSING
C. EXTRA
D. All
the above
Ans: D
83. What
is correct Software Process Cycle?
A.
Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)
B.
Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
C.
Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)
Ans: B
84.
Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be
running on can handle projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test
is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and network associates after
the system Testing called as
A.
Functional Testing
B.
Stress/Load Testing
C. Recovery
Testing
D.
Integration Testing
Ans: B
85.
Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system,
maintenance costs and effort required
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
86. Beta
testing will be done by
A.
Developer
B. User
C. Tester
Ans: B
87.
Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system
validation
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
88.
Integration, It will come under
A. CMM
Level 1
B. CMM
Level 3
C. CMM
Level 2
D. None
Ans: B
89. Types
of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
90. Which
Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities
when starting development activities itself
A. Water
falls model
B. Spiral
Model
C. V-model
D. Linear
model
Ans: C
91. A
metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools
employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called
as
A.
Process metric
B.
Product Metric
C. Test
metrics
Ans: A
92. Check
Sheet(Checklist. is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because
it differentiates between two extremes.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
93.
Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is
needed for Automation testing.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
94.
Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used
in a project.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
95. How
severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
A.
Severity
B.
Priority
C. Fix
ability
D.
Traceability
Ans: A
96.
Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
97. The
name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not
affected by new changes
A.
Recursive testing
B. Whitebox
testing
C. Unit
testing
D.
Regression testing
Ans: D
98.
Management and Measurement, It will come under
A. CMM
Level 1
B. CMM
Level 3
C. CMM
Level 4
D. CMM
Level 2
Ans: C
99. AdHoc
testing is a part of
A. Unit
Testing
B.
Regression Tesing
C. Exploratory
Testing
D.
Performance Testing
Ans: C
100. Cost
of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
101.
------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up. the
application will run smoothly
A. Test
Bed
B.
Checkpoint
C. Code
Walk through
D.
Checklist
Ans: A
102. TQM
represents
A. Tool
Quality Management
B. Test
Quality Manager
C. Total
Quality Management
D. Total
Quality Manager
Ans: C
103.
Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
A. CMM
Level 2
B. CMM
Level 3
C. CMM
Level 4
D. CMM
Level5
Ans: D
104. Unit
Testing will be done by
A.
Testers
B. End
Users
C.
Customer
D.
Developers
Ans: D
105. Beta
testing will be done at
A. User
place
B. Developers
place
Ans: A
106. A
Plan to overcome the risk called as
A.
Migration Plan
B. Master
plan
C.
Maintenance plan
D.
Mitigation Plan
Ans: D
Q1. Impact
Analysis helps to decide:
A.
Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
B.
Exit Criteria
C.
How many more test cases need to written
D.
How much regression testing should be done
Q2. Determine
the statement which holds true in case of Exploratory Testing:
A.
It starts the execution only when the design
gets finalized
B.
It involves simultaneous design of the test and
execution
C.
It starts the execution only when the design
gets renewed
D.
It starts the execution only when the design
gets amended
Q3.Equivalence
partitioning is:
A.
A black box testing technique used only by
developers
B.
A black box testing technique than can only be
used during system testing
C.
A black box testing technique appropriate to
all levels of testing
D.
A white box testing technique appropriate for
component testing
Q4. Which
of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A.
Number of undetected defects
B.
Number of test cases not yet executed
C.
Total number of defects in the product
D.
Effort required to fix all defects
Q5. Which
of the following is not part of performance testing?
A.
Measuring response time
B.
Measuring transaction rates
C.
Recovery testing
D.
Simulating many users
E.
Generating many transactions
Q6. A
test harness is a:
A.
A high level document describing the
principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B.
A distance set of test activities collected
into a manageable phase of a project
C.
A test environment comprised of stubs and
drives needed to conduct a test
D.
A set of several test cases for a component or
system under test
Q7. The
main focus of acceptance testing is:
A.
finding faults in the system
B.
ensuring that the system is acceptable to all
users
C.
testing the system with other systems
D.
testing for a business perspective
E.
testing by an independent test team
Q8. Unreachable
code would best be found using:
A.
code reviews
B.
code inspections
C.
a coverage tool
D.
a static analysis tool
Q9. What
is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan?
A.
to know when a specific test has finished its
execution
B.
to ensure that the test case specification is
complete
C.
to set the criteria used in generating test
inputs
D.
to know when test planning is complete
E.
to plan when to stop testing
Q10. Before
launching a software which testing is to be done in-house?
A.
Beta
B.
Gamma
C.
Alpha
D.
None of the above
Q11. In
which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
A.
Test implementation and execution.
B.
Test planning and control
C.
Test analysis and design
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q12.The
difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
A.
re-testing is running a test again; regression
testing looks for unexpected side effects
B.
re-testing looks for unexpected side effects;
regression testing is repeating those tests
C.
re-testing is done after faults are fixed;
regression testing is done earlier
D.
re-testing uses different environments,
regression testing uses the same environment
E.
re-testing is done by developers, regression
testing is done by independent testers
Q13. Statement
Coverage will not check for the following:
A.
Missing Statements
B.
Unused Branches
C.
Dead Code
D.
Unused Statement
Q14. Beta
testing is:
A.
Performed by customers at their own site
B.
Performed by customers at their software
developer’s site
C.
Performed by an independent test team
D.
Useful to test bespoke software
E.
Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q15. Which
of the following is NOT a black box technique?
A.
Equivalence partitioning
B.
State transition testing
C.
Linear code sequence and jump
D.
Syntax testing
E.
Boundary value analysis
Q16. Which
testing phase tests individual software modules combined together as a group?
A.
Module testing
B.
Integration testing
C.
White Box testing
D.
Software testing
Q17. Which
is NOT true - The black box tester:
A.
should be able to understand a functional
specification or requirements document
B.
should be able to understand the source code
C.
is highly motivated to find faults
D.
is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
Q18. Which
of the following is a major task of test planning?
A.
Determining the test approach
B.
Preparing test specifications
C.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D.
Measuring and analyzing results
Q19. Which
of the following is NOT a static testing technique?
A.
Error guessing
B.
Walkthrough
C.
Data flow analysis
D.
Inspections
Audi time
pattern
Pesticide Paradox principle of testing says
that ______________.
a.
Clustering modules contain most of the defects.
b.
Finding and Fixing defects does not help if the system built is unstable.
c.
Testing is done differently in different context.
d. Test
cases needs to be regularly reviewed and
revised.
ANSWER:
Test cases needs to be regularly
reviewed and revised.
When an
expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.
a. We
cannot run the test.
b. It may
be difficult to repeat the test.
c. It may
be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
d. We
cannot automate the user inputs.
ANSWER:
It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
End
result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.
a.
Functional and Behavioral
b.
Architectural and Structural
c.
Usability and Reliability
d.
Algorithmic and Data Structure
ANSWER:
Functional and Behavioral
Which
Testing is performed first?
a. Black
box testing
b. White
box testing
c.
Dynamic testing
d. Static
testing
ANSWER:
Static testing
Testing
beyond normal operational capacity is __________.
a. Load
testing
b.
Performance testing
c. Stress
testing
d. All of
these.
ANSWER:
Stress testing
The expected results of the software is
_________________.
a. Only
important in system testing
b. Only
used in component testing
c. Most
useful when specified in advance
d.
Derived from the code
ANSWER: Only
important in system testing
Which is
not true?
a.
Condition coverage is also known as Predicate Coverage
b. 100%
condition coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage.
c. Error
guessing has rules for testing.
d.
Predicate Coverage uses Boolean values.
ANSWER:
Error guessing has rules for testing.
7n test
cases are generated in which case of Boundary Value Analysis?
a. Worst
case
b. Roust
worst case
c.
Critical fault assumption
d. None
of these
ANSWER:
Roust worst case
Which of the following is not a static
testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspection
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspection
The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the abovequh
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the abovequh
White Box
Testing is not concern with _________.
a.
Statement Coverage
b.
Decision Coverage
c. Cause
and Effect Coverage
d.
Multiple Condition Coverage
ANSWER:
Cause and Effect Coverage
The
approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when
writing test cases
A. Test
Matrix
B.
Checklist
C. Test
bed
D.
Traceability Matrix
Ans: D
New Istqb questions
We split
testing into distinct stages primarily because: a) Each test stage has a different
purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different
environments.
d)
The more stages we have, the better the testing.
|
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test
tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d)
User acceptance testing
|
Which
of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ
coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path
coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)
A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally
detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)
A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will
generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
|
Which of the
following requirements is testable?
a) The
system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall
contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one
second for the specified design load.
d)
The system shall be built to be portable.
|
5
|
Analyse
the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require,
single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or
Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’ Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50” ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide
the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions
have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d)
6
|
6
|
Error
guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and
system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d)
is not repeatable and should not be used.
|
7
|
Which
of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in
terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the
percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the
percentage of faults found.
d)
Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion
criteria.
|
8
|
In
prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to: a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d)
test whatever is easiest to test.
|
9
|
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity
descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control w – test
monitoring x - test estimation y - incident management z - configuration control
1
- calculation of required test resources
2
- maintenance of record of test results
3
- re-allocation of resources when tests
overrun
4
- report on deviation from
test plan 5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d)
v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
|
10
|
Which one of
the following statements about system testing is NOT true? a) System tests are often performed
by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than
structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very
expensive to fix.
d)
End-users should be involved in system tests.
|
11
|
Which
of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual
results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test
process improvement.
d)
An incident can be raised against documentation.
|
12
|
Enough
testing has been performed when: a) time
runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been
achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d)
the users won’t find any serious faults.
|
13
|
Which
of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of
the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user
requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or
correction.
d)
Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
|
14
|
Which of the
following is not described in a unit test standard? a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d)
modified condition/decision coverage
|
15
|
Which
of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have
different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after
debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a
system.
d)
Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect
behaviour.
|
16
|
Which one of
the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct? a) They are used to support
multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types
of CAST tool.
d)
They capture aspects of user behaviour.
|
17
|
How would you
estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required? a) Metrics from previous similar
projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d)
a & b
|
18
|
Which
of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user
requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d)
It includes the verification of designs.
|
19
|
The
oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against
which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the
correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the
software under test.
d)
is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
|
20
|
Which
of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a)
They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most
expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing
but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early
development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d)
Although faults are most expensive to find during early development
phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
|
21
|
Which of the
following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for
release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d)
To prove that the software is correct.
|
22
|
Which of the
following is a form of functional testing? a) Boundary
value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d)
Security testing
|
23
|
Which of the
following would NOT normally form part of a test plan? a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d)
Schedule
|
24
|
Which of
these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of
CAST? a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d)
Test planning
|
25
|
Which of the
following is NOT a white box technique? a) Statement
testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d)
State transition testing
|
26
|
Data
flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a
program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program
executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d)
the intrinsic complexity of the code.
|
27
|
In a system designed to
work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of
salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed
at 22%
Any further amount is
taxed at 40%
To the
nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test
case? a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d)
£28000
|
28
|
An
important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the
execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the
code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d)
are cheap to perform.
|
29
|
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for
User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d)
System specification
|
30
|
What
is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a
walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a
walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections,
whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d)
A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a
trained moderator.
|
31
|
Which one of
the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life
cycle? a) It allows the
identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test
environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d)
It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
|
32
|
Integration
testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been
developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or
subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the
live system.
d)
tests interfaces to other systems.
|
33
|
Static
analysis is best described as: a) the
analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d)
the use of black box testing.
|
34
|
Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user
representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user
representatives at the developer’s site.
d)
pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
|
A failure is:
a)
found
in the software; the result of an error.
b)
departure
from specified behaviour.
c)
an
incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human
action that produces an incorrect result.
|
|
36
|
In a
system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An
employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The
next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any
further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence
class? a) £4800; £14000;
£28000
b)
£5200;
£5500; £28000
c)
£28001;
£32000; £35000
d) £5800;
£28000; £32000
|
37
|
The most important thing about early test design is that it: a) makes test preparation easier.
b)
means
inspections are not required.
c)
can
prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all
faults.
|
38
|
Which of the following statements about
reviews is true?
a)
Reviews
cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b)
Reviews
are the least effective way of testing code.
c)
Reviews
are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews
should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
|
39
|
Test cases are designed during: a) test
recording.
b)
test
planning.
c)
test
configuration.
d) test
specification.
|
40
|
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide: a) linkage of customer requirements
to version numbers.
b)
facilities
to compare test results with expected results.
c)
the
precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted
access to the source code library.
|
35
Question
number
|
Correct
answer
|
1
|
A
|
2
|
A
|
3
|
D
|
4
|
C
|
5
|
A
|
6
|
A
|
7
|
C
|
8
|
B
|
9
|
C
|
10
|
D
|
11
|
A
|
12
|
B
|
13
|
A
|
14
|
C
|
15
|
B
|
16
|
B
|
17
|
D
|
18
|
D
|
19
|
B
|
20
|
A
|
21
|
D
|
22
|
A
|
23
|
B
|
24
|
C
|
25
|
D
|
26
|
C
|
27
|
C
|
28
|
A
|
29
|
C
|
30
|
D
|
31
|
C
|
32
|
B
|
33
|
C
|
34
|
C
|
35
|
B
|
36
|
D
|
37
|
C
|
38
|
D
|
39
|
D
|
40
|
B
|
1 We split testing into
distinct stages primarily because: a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is
easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run
different tests in different environments.
d) The
more stages we have, the better the testing.
2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the
use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression
testing
b) Integration
testing
c) System
testing
d) User
acceptance testing
3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal
test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch
coverage.
b) A minimal
test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement
coverage.
c) A minimal
test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults
than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A
minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect
more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4 Which of the following
requirements is testable? a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The
safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The
response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The
system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number
of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all
combinations have occurred and all replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements
formal test design techniques.
b) can only be
used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only
performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not
repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage
criteria?
a) Test
coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure
of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure
of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test
coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritising what to test,
the most important objective is to: a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high
risk areas.
c) obtain good
test coverage.
d) test
whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of
test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the
following best pairs the two sets? v – test control w – test monitoring x -
test estimation y - incident management z - configuration control
1 -
calculation of required test resources
2 -
maintenance of record of test results
3 -
re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 -
report on deviation from test plan 5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following
statements about system testing is NOT true? a) System tests are often
performed by independent teams.
b) Functional
testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults
found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users
should be involved in system tests.
11 Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents
should always be fixed.
b) An incident
occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents
can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An
incident can be raised against documentation.
12 Enough testing has been
performed when: a) time runs out.
b) the
required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more
faults are found.
d) the
users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident
resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents
may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents
require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents
are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is
not described in a unit test standard? a) syntax testing
b) equivalence
partitioning
c) stress
testing
d) modified
condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system
two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is
necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault
need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected
errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following
statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct? a) They are used to
support multi-user testing.
b) They are
used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are
the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They
capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the
amount of re-testing likely to be required? a) Metrics from previous similar
projects
b) Discussions
with the development team
c) Time allocated
for regression testing
d) a
& b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states
that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only
models the testing phase.
c) It
specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It
includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that
there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the
tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the
tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is
that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are
cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix
in the latest test phases.
b) They are
easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are
cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix
then.
d) Although
faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are
cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following
should NOT normally be an objective for a test? a) To find faults in the
software.
b) To assess
whether the software is ready for release.
c) To
demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To
prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a
form of functional testing? a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability
testing
c) Performance
testing
d) Security
testing
23 Which of the following
would NOT normally form part of a test plan? a) Features to be tested
b) Incident
reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24 Which of these activities
provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST? a) Test
management
b) Test design
c) Test
execution
d) Test
planning
25 Which of the following is
NOT a white box technique? a) Statement testing
b) Path
testing
c) Data flow
testing
d) State
transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible
communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of
change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of
data on paths through the code.
d) the
intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is
taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound,
which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the
code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be
performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be
performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are
cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected
Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts? a) Actual results
b) Program
specification
c) User
requirements
d) System
specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an
inspection?
a) An
inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained
moderator.
b) An
inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are
not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A
walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained
moderator.
31 Which one of the following
describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle? a) It
allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It
facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces
defect multiplication.
d) It
allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the
individual components that have been developed.
b) tests
interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses
components that form part of the live system.
d) tests
interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is best
described as: a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the
reviewing of test plans.
c) the
analysis of program code.
d) the
use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release
testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first
testing that is performed.
c) pre-release
testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release
testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) found in
the software; the result of an error.
b) departure
from specified behaviour.
c) an
incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a
human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is
taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of
numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200;
£5500; £28000
c) £28001;
£32000; £35000
d) £5800;
£28000; £32000
37 The most important thing
about early test design is that it: a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means
inspections are not required.
c) can prevent
fault multiplication.
d) will
find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews
cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are
the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are
unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews
should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39 Test cases are designed
during: a) test recording.
b) test
planning.
c) test
configuration.
d) test
specification.
40 A configuration management
system would NOT normally provide: a) linkage of customer requirements to
version numbers.
b) facilities
to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise
differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted
access to the source code library.
Question number & answer
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A 21 D 22 A 23 B
24 C 25 D 26 C
27 C 28 A 29 C 30 D 31 C 32 B
33 C
34 C 35 B 36 D 37 C 38 D
39 D 40 B
